amanda roura
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Thank you. On a similar note, if a lumbar radic patient aligns with the criteria for traction, should nerve mobs still come first?
Yes, that was helpful along with the article. That’s still something i need to work on, choosing the correct treatment when multiple are appropriate. So just to clarify: even if the question doesnt specifically illustrate a directional preference, that would still be the appropriate answer to try first prior to manip? I ask because there have been other practice questions I’ve taken and DP is wrong because “no DP was illustrated by the patient.”
Got it. Do you have a reference or can offer help with knowing how to answer those questions on the test? Because even with symptom modulation classification, manipulation would be appropriate. Seems like both answers would be equally correct. How would I know which way the test writer is thinking?
No, sorry. I read the other post about being more descriptive in the future. The question was relating to a guy who tweaked his back working on his shed and went to the ED with intense pain. The question states that his hip ROM is WNL, there wasnt any s/s distal to knee, he was hypomobile, and he had gone to the ED right away so it was <16 days. This all points to manipulation to me, though the correct answer with directional preference even though nothing in the question shows a directional preference.
