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This question is in regards to a question on the 3rd exam, case 1.
“An 18-year-old woman presented to physical therapy with left lumbosacral pain with referral into the posterior aspect of the left glute and thigh. The pain began suddenly when the patient was pulling an object out of the swimming pool, 72 hours before the consultation. The patient did not report any numbness, paresthesia, or weakness in the lower extremities. The patient characterized the nature of her complaint as a constant tension, slightly worse with bending over with an intensity of 6/10 that had gradually increased over time and interfered with her daily activities……”
The 3rd case question in regards to this patient case asks which TBCS group they would be in… I chose functional optimization because she has minimal pain, full strength, and really only limitations with ADLs. But the right answer says movement control? The explanation on the exam even seems to point to functional optimization to me… I’m confused as to why its movement control? Help! Thank you 🙂
Answer explanation:
While this is an acute onset of LBP, the patient’s symptoms appear to be stable and her disability is low-moderate given that she demonstrated WNL active ROM and 5/5 strength, but reports interference with ADLs -
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